Computer gk 31 may

.1. A web site address is a unique name that identifies a specific ___ on the web?

(1) Address 

(2) Location 

(3) Space 

(4) Size 

(5) None of these 

Q.2. ‘.net’ sites are -

(1) Commercial Sites 

(2) Military Sites 

(3) Network Sites 

(4) Educational Sites 

(5) None of these 

Q.3. Which of the following is a web browser?

(1) Paint 

(2) Powerpoint 

(3) Firefox 

(4) Word 

(5) None of these 

Q.4. Which of the following is not a search engine?

(1) Dogpile 

(2) Mosaic 

(3) Altavista 

(4) Yahoo 

(5) None of these 

Q.5. Junk e-mail is also called_____.

(1) Spam 

(2) Spoof 

(3) Sniffer script 

(4) Spool 

(5) None of these 

Q.6. End to End message delivery from one host to another is performed at which layer of OSI model ?

(1) Physical 

(2) Data link 

(3) I & II 

(4) Session 

(5) Transport 

Q.7. Which of the following is a browser?

(1) Window XP 

(2) C++ 

(3) Internet Explorer 

(4) Front page 

(5) None of these 

Q.8. Which of the following protocol is used in internet?

(1) TCP/IP 

(2) VB.Net 

(3) Java 

(4) SQL 

(5) None of these 

Q.9. If you do not have an any e-mail account on then which of the following will you select ? 

(1) Sign up 

(2) Sign in 

(3) sign write 

(4) sign down 

(5) None of these 

Q.10. Length of IP address is.........? 

(1) 4 byte 

(2) 48 bits 

(3) 6 digit 

(4) 16 bits 

(5) None of these 

ANSWERS-

Q.1. (1) Address

Q.2. (3) Network Sites

Q.3. (3) Firefox

Q.4. (2) MOSAIC

Q.5. (1) Spam

Q.6. (5) Transport

Q.7. (3) Internet Explorer

Q.8. (1) TCP/IP 

Q.9. (1) Sign up

Q.10. (1) 4 byte is length of IP address

Computer gk 29 may

.1. Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID?

(1) Class E 

(2) Class B 

(3) Class C 

(4) Class D 

(5) Class A

Q.2. Which of the following devices translates hostnames into IP addresses?

(1) DNS Server 

(2) Hub 

(3) DHCP Server 

(4) Firewall 

(5) MAC 

Q.3. Which of the following devices takes data sent from one network device and forwards it to all devices on the network regardless of the intended recipient?

(1) Switch 

(2) DNS Server 

(3) Hub 

(4) Gateway 

(5) All 

Q.4. Which of the following devices takes data sent from one network device and forwards it to the destination node based on MAC address?

(1) Hub 

(2) Switch 

(3) Gateway 

(4) Modem 

(5) All 

Q.5. Which of the following devices is used to connect same network segments and manage the traffic between them?

(1) Switch 

(2) Hub 

(3) Modem 

(4) Repeater 

(5) Bridge 

Q.6. Which of the following network devices/systems translates data from one format to another?

(1) DHCP Server 

(2) Hub 

(3) Gateway 

(4) NIC 

(5) Switch 

Q.7. Switch is a device of _________ Layer of OSI Model.

(1) Network Layer 

(2) Data Link Layer 

(3) Application Layer 

(4) Session Layer 

(5) None of these

Q.8. HUB is a _________ Device and Switch is a ________ Device.

(1) Unicast, Multicast 

(2) Multicast, Unicast 

(3) Broadcast, Unicast 

(4) Unicast, Unicast 

(5) Multicast, Multicast 

Q.9. Star Topology is based on a Central Device that can be __________.

(1) HUB 

(2) Switch 

(3) Router 

(4) Both 1 and 2 

(5) Gateway

Q.10. Which of the following devices modulates digital signals into analog signals that can be sent over traditional telephone lines?

(1) Router 

(2) Gateway 

(3) Switch 

(4) Modem 

(5) NIC 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (3) Class C 

Q.2. (1) DNS Server 

Q.3. (3) Hub 

Q.4. (2) Switch 

Q.5. (5) Bridge is used to connect same network segments and manage the traffic between them.

Q.6. (3) Gateway network devices/systems translate data from one format to another.

Q.7. (2) Switches operate on the second layer of OSI Model, that is Data Link Layer.

Q.8. (3) Hub is a Broadcasting Device and Switch is a Unicasting Device.

Q.9. (4) Hub and Switch are used in Star topology.

Computer gk 28 may

Q.1. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is—

(1) Modem 

(2) Gateway 

(3) Router 

(4) Bridge 

(5) All of these 

Q.2. A group of computers and other devices connected together is called________.

(1) Network 

(2) Intranet 

(3) Internetworking 

(4) Both 2 and 3 

(5) Extranet 

Q.3. Transmission Lines are also called as________.

(1) Circuits 

(2) Channels 

(3) Trunks 

(4) Circuits channels, or trunks 

(5) Wire 

Q.4. The Switching Elements are also called as _____.

(1) Host 

(2) Terminal 

(3) Interface Message Processors (IMPs) 

(4) Both 1 and 2 

(5) Subnet 

Q.5. The distance a simple signal can travel in one period is called ________.

(1) Wavelength 

(2) Frequency 

(3) Propagation speed 

(4) Both 1 and 2 

(5) None of these 

Q.6. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

(1) 1 

(2) 12 

(3) 5 

(4) 2 

(5) 10 

Q.7. Which protocol does Ping use?

(1) TCP 

(2) ARP 

(3) ICMP 

(4) BootP 

(5) UDP 

Q.8. What is a stub network?

(1) A network that has only one entry and exit point. 

(2) A network with only one entry and no exit point. 

(3) A network with more than one exit point. 

(4) A network with more than one exit and entry point. 

(5) A network with more than one entry point. 

Q.9. Which of the following services use TCP?

(1) DHCP 

(2) SMTP 

(3) FTP 

(4) HTTP 

(5) 2, 3 and 4 

Q.10. Which of the following terms is used to describe a hardware- or software-based device that protects networks from outside threats?

(1) NIC 

(2) Gateway 

(3) Firewall 

(4) Hub 

(5) Server 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (2) Gateway 

Q.2. (1) A group of computers and other devices connected together is called Network.

Q.3. (4) Transmission Lines are also called as circuits channels, or trunks

Q.4. (3) The Switching Elements are also called as IMPs.

Q.5. (1) The distance a simple signal can travel in one period is called wavelength.

Q.6. (2) 12 

Q.7. (3) ICMP 

Q.8. (1) A network that has only one entry and exit point. 

Q.9. (5) SMTP, HTTP and FTP use TCP.

Q.10. (3) Firewall 

Computer gk 27 may

Q.1. Which one is a valid IP address?

(1) 300.215.317.3 

(2) 302.215.417.5 

(3) 202.50.20.148 

(4) 202-5-20-148 

(5) None of these 

Q.2. Which type of transmission media is known as regular telephone wire?

(1) Wi-Fi 

(2) Twisted-pair wire 

(3) Fiber optic cable 

(4) Coaxial cable 

(5) All 

Q.3. What is the purpose of a firewall on a computer?

(1) To protect a computer from unauthorized access 

(2) To protect a computer in case of fire 

(3) To protect a computer from spam 

(4) All of the above 

(5) None of these 

Q.4. Which of the following layer is not in OSI model?

(1) Physical layer 

(2) Internet layer 

(3) Network layer 

(4) Transport layer 

(5) Application layer

Q.5. Copper wire is an example of?

(1) Guided Transmission Media 

(2) Shield Media 

(3) Group Media 

(4) Unguided Transmission Media 

(5) None of these 

Q.6. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue.

(1) Performance 

(2) Reliability 

(3) Security 

(4) Firewall 

(5) None of these 

Q.7. Which topology requires a central controller or hub?

(1) Mesh 

(2) Star 

(3) Bus 

(4) Ring 

(5) Tree 

Q.8. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?

(1) Mesh 

(2) Star 

(3) Bus 

(4) Ring 

(5) Tree 

Q.9. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network?

(1) LAN 

(2) DSL 

(3) RAM 

(4) USB 

(5) CPU

Q.10. Computers connected to a LAN 

(Local Area Network) can—

(1) Run faster 

(2) Go on line 

(3) Share information and/or share peripheral equipment 

(4) E-mail 

(5) None of these 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (3) 202.50.20.148 

Q.2. (2) Twisted-pair wire of transmission media is known as regular telephone wire.

Q.3. (1) To protect a computer from unauthorized access 

Q.4. (2) Internet layer 

Q.5. (1) Guided Transmission Media 

Q.6. (3) Security 

Q.7. (2) Star 

Q.8. (3) Bus topology requires a multipoint connection.

Q.9. (1) Local Area Network refer to a small, single-site network.

Q.10. (3) Computers connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can share information and/ or share peripheral equipment.

Computer gk 26 may

.1. Which one of the following is used as connect to the internet?

(1) Web browser 

(2) Net fitter 

(3) Windows 95 

(4) Cable 

(5) None of these 

Q.2. Which of the following communication mode support two way traffic but only in one direction at a time?

(1) Simplex 

(2) half-duplex 

(3) three-quaters duplex 

(4) All of the Above 

(5) None of these 

Q.3. Who decide about the division of work with respect to IT security ?

(1) Data owner 

(2) Senior Manager 

(3) Data Custodian 

(4) Data user 

(5) None of these 

Q.4. The user account can only be created by the -

(1) User 

(2) Network administrator 

(3) Security administrator 

(4) Project incharge 

(5) None of these 

Q.5. Digital signal used in ISDN have -

(1) Discrete value 

(2) Any value 

(3) whole no value 

(4) fractional value 

(5) None of these 

Q.6. Bandwidth means -

(1) Channel capacity 

(2) Data transmission 

(3) Cable length 

(4) All 

(5) None of these 

Q.7. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?

(1) Cable 

(2) DSL 

(3) Dial-up 

(4) Satellite 

(5) None of these 

Q.8. Which of the following is not an example of security and privacy risk ?

(1) Hackers 

(2) Spam 

(3) Virus 

(4) Identity theft 

(5) None of these 

Q.9. A ____________ uses long-distance transmission media to link computers separated by distance.

(1) circuit-switching network 

(2) Wi-Fi 

(3) WAN 

(4) LAN 

(5) None of these 

Q.10. Which of the following is NOT considered as a network communications device?

(1) Network interface card (NIC) 

(2) Modem 

(3) Data bus 

(4) Router 

(5) None of these 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (4) Cable 

Q.2. (2) half-duplex 

Q.3. (2) Senior Manage or Chief information security officer 

(CISO) of IT assurance manager who is in charge of information security.

Q.4. (2) Network administrator 

Q.5. (1) Discrete value 

Q.6. (4) Bandwidth is the amount of data that can be transmitted along a channel during a specified period of time.

Q.7. (3) Dial-up 

Q.8. (2) Spam 

Q.9. (3) A WAN uses long-distance transmission media to link computers separated by distance.

Q.10. (3) Data Bus is NOT considered a network communications device.

Computer gk 25 may

Q.1. Netware is a product of which company ?

(1) Microsoft 

(2) Redhat 

(3) Novell 

(4) Window 

(5) None of these 

Q.2. Network which is connected over a Geographic area is called -

(1) LAN 

(2) MAN 

(3) WAN 

(4) CAN 

(5) None of these 

Q.3. Which device is used to connect a computer over the Telephone Network.

(1) Router 

(2) Hub 

(3) VSAT 

(4) Gateway 

(5) None of these 

Q.4. What is the function of network neighbourhood ?

(1) To navigate shared computer and folder in Network 

(2) To identify who is living near to you 

(3) Send messages to neighbouring computer 

(4) Both 1 & 2 

(5) None of these 

Q.5. Which device can not be shared in Network ?

(1) Computer 

(2) Keyboard 

(3) Floppy 

(4) Printer 

(5) None of these 

Q.6. Work group means ?

(1) Computer in Network 

(2) Individual user 

(3) Individual deposit 

(4) All of above 

(5) None of these 

Q.7. Which of the following is an invalid IP Address -

(1) 10. 226. 0. 15 

(2) 192. 168. 0.12 

(3) 10. 265. 0 .115 

(4) 192. 168. 0. 1 

(5) None of these 

Q.8. CBS is the example of -

(1) LAN 

(2) WAN 

(3) Internet 

(4) Intranet 

(5) None of these 

Q.9. Which layer of OSI Model is closest to the user -

(1) Physcial layer 

(2) Transport layer 

(3) Application layer 

(4) Network layer 

(5) None of these 

Q.10. Which of the following is considered as a broad band communications channel? 

(1) co-axial cable 

(2) fiber optic cable 

(3) microwave circuits 

(4) satellite systems 

(5) All of the above 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (3) Netware is an operating system, which is developed by Novell.

Q.2. (3) WAN 

Q.3. (5) None of these 

To connect a computer over telephone line, modem is required.

Q.4. (1) No navigate shared computer and folder in Network 

Q.5. (2) Keyboard 

Q.6. (1) Computer in network is work group. 

Q.7. (3) For an Ip Address to be valid, there should be four numbers seperated by dots, and every number must lie between 0 to 255

Q.8. (4) Intranet 

Q.9. (3) Application layers

Q.10. (5) All are broad band communication channel. 

Computer gk 24 may

In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by ............. ?

(1) Network layer 

(2) Data link layer 

(3) Transport layer 

(4) Session layer 

(5) None of these

Q.2. Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation ? 

(1) Fiber optics 

(2) Satellite 

(3) Coaxial Cable 

(4) Encoder/Decoder 

(5) None of these 

Q.3. Which is the first layer of OSI model-

(1) Physical layer 

(2) Link layer 

(3) Transport layer 

(4) Network layer 

(5) None of these 

Q.4. Which of the following is not a transmission medium ?

(1) Telephones lines 

(2) Coaxial cables 

(3) Modem 

(4) Micro wave system 

(5) None of these

Q.5. What is the minimum number of wires needed to send data over a serial communication link layer ?

(1) 1 

(2) 2 

(3) 4 

(4) 6 

(5) None of these

Q.6. The loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber is called

(1) Attenuation 

(2) Interruption 

(3) Scattering 

(4) Propogation 

(5) None of these

Q.7. Device that connect to the network without using cables is called———.

(1) Distributed 

(2) Wireless 

(3) Centralized 

(4) Open source 

(5) None of these 

Q.8. The most important and powerful computer are typically____.

(1) Desktop 

(2) Network client 

(3) Network server 

(4) Networkstation 

(5) Super computer 

Q.9. Example of connectivity is_______.

(1) Internet 

(2) Floppy disk 

(3) Powercord 

(4) Data 

(5) None of these 

Q.10. Which of the following has highest complex interconnection ?

(1) Bus 

(2) Ring 

(3) Star 

(4) Mesh 

(5) None of these 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (1) Network layer 

Q.2. (5) None of these 

Q.3. (1) Physical layer 

Q.4. (3) Modem 

Q.5. (2) 2 

Q.6. (1) Attenuation 

Q.7. (2) Wireless 

Q.8. (5) Super computer 

Q.9. (1) Internet is example of connectivity.

Q.10. (4) Mesh 

Computer gk 23 may

Q.1. The full form of DDL is _______?

(1) Dynamic Data Language 

(2) Detailed Data Language 

(3) Data Definition Language 

(4) Data Derivation Language 

(5) Data Dimensional Language 

Q.2. Which of the following is an advantage of a View?

(1) Data security 

(2) Derived columns 

(3) Hiding of complex queries 

(4) All of the above 

(5) None of these

Q.3. Which database level is closest to the users?

(1) External 

(2) Internal 

(3) Physical 

(4) Conceptual 

(5) None of these 

Q.4. Which are the two ways in which entities can participate in a relationship?

(1) Passive and active 

(2) Total and partial 

(3) Simple and Complex 

(4) All of the above 

(5) None of these 

Q.5. The result of the UNION operation between R1 and R2 is a relation that includes _______.

(1) All the tuples of R1 

(2) All the tuples of R2 

(3) All the tuples of R1 and R2 

(4) All the tuples of R1 and R2 which have common columns 

(5) None of these 

Q.6. Which of the following option appropriate is a comparison operator in SQL?

(1) = 

(2) LIKE 

(3) BETWEEN 

(4) All of the above 

(5) None of these 

Q.7. ________ is a process when relation between two entity is treated as a single entity.

(1) Normalization 

(2) Aggregation 

(3) Generalization 

(4) Specialization 

(5) Simplification 

Q.8. In an ER Diagram, ellipse with underlying lines is used to represent _________?

(1) attribute 

(2) Key attribute 

(3) Composite attribute 

(4) Multivalued attribute 

(5) Entity 

Q.9. _________ constraint is used to restrict actions that would destroy links between tables?

(1) Primary key 

(2) Foreign Key 

(3) Check 

(4) Not Null 

(5) Unique 

Q.10. In a table of data base, degree refers- 

(1) total numer of row 

(2) row in a table 

(3) column in a table 

(4) total number of column in a table 

(5) none of these 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (3) DDL stands for Data Definition Language.

Q.2. (4) All are advantages of view.

Q.3. (1) External database level is closest to the users.

Q.4. (2) Total and partial.

Q.5. (4) All the tuples of R1 and R2 which have common columns.

Q.6. (4) =, Like and Between are comparison operators in SQL.

Q.7. (2) Aggregation is a process when relation between two entities is treated as a single entity.

Q.8. (2) In an ER Diagram, ellipse with underlying lines is used to represent Key attribute.

Q.9. (2) Foreign Key constraint is used to restrict actions that would destroy links between tables.

Q.10. (4) Total mumber of column

Computer gk 22 may

1. A data dictionary is a special file that contains?

(1) the data types of all fields in all files 

(2) the names of all fields in all files 

(3) the widths of all fields in all files 

(4) All of above 

(5) None of above 

Q.2. A command that lets you change one or more fields of a record is?

(1) Insert 

(2) Modify 

(3) Look-up 

(4) All of above 

(5) None of above 

Q.3. In a large DBMS?

(1) Each user can see only a small part of the entire database 

(2) Each user can access every sub schema 

(3) Each sub schema contains every field in the logical schema 

(4) All of above 

(5) None of above 

Q.4. It is better to use files than a DBMS when there are _______ .

(1) Stringent real-time requirements 

(2) Multiple users who wish to access the data 

(3) Complex relationships among data 

(4) All of the above 

(5) None of these 

Q.5. The conceptual model is _______ .

(1) dependent on hardware 

(2) dependent on software 

(3) dependent on both hardware and software 

(4) independent of both hardware and software 

(5) None of these 

Q.6. What is a relationship called when it is maintained between two entities? 

(1) Unary 

(2) Binary 

(3) Ternary 

(4) Quaternary 

(5) 1 and 2 

Q.7. Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a table?

(1) PROJECTION 

(2) SELECTION 

(3) UNION 

(4) JOIN 

(5) Intersect 

Q.8. Which of the following is a valid SQL type?

(1) CHARACTER 

(2) NUMERIC 

(3) FLOAT 

(4) DATE 

(5) All of the above 

Q.9. The RDBMS terminology for a row is _______?

(1) Tuple 

(2) Relation 

(3) Attribute 

(4) Degree 

(5) Field 

Q.10. Which of the following operations need the participating relations to be union compatible?

(1) UNION 

(2) INTERSECTION0 

(3) DIFFERENCE 

(4) All of the above 

(5) None of these 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (4) the data types of all fields in all files, the names of all fields in all files and the widths of all fields in all files

Q.2. (2) Modify

Q.3. (1) Each user can see only a small part of the entire database.

Q.4. (2) Multiple users who wish to access the data

Q.5. (4) Independent of both hardware and sofware.

Q.6. (2) Binary

Q.7. (1) Projection operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a table.

Q.8. (5) All are valid SQL data type.

Q.9. (1) The RDBMS terminology for a row is Tuple.

Q.10. (4) Union, Intersection and d

Computer gk 21 may

Q.1. Snapshot of the data in the database at a given instant of time is called _____.

(1) Database Schema 

(2) Database Instance 

(3) Database Snapshot 

(4) All of the above 

(5) None of these 

Q.2. Which of the following is not Unary operation?

(1) Select 

(2) Project 

(3) Rename 

(4) Union 

(5) None of these 

Q.3. Which of the following is not binary operation?

(1) Union 

(2) Project 

(3) Set Difference 

(4) Cartesian Product 

(5) None of these 

Q.4. The raw facts and figures are:

(1) Program 

(2) Information 

(3) Snapshot 

(4) Reports 

(5) None of these 

Q.5. A command to remove a relation from an SQL database is ____.

(1) Delete table  

(2) Drop table  

(3) Erase table  

(4) Alter table  

(5) None of these 

Q.6. Entities having primary key are called?

(1) Primary Entities 

(2) Strong Entities 

(3) Weak Entities 

(4) Primary Key 

(5) None of these 

Q.7. In the E-R diagrams, the term cardinality is a synonym for the term?

(1) Attribute 

(2) Degree 

(3) Entities 

(4) Cartesian 

(5) None of these 

Q.8. TRUNCATE statement in SQL is a ____.

(1) DML statement 

(2) DDL statement 

(3) DCL statement 

(4) TCL statement 

(5) None of above 

Q.9. The default date format in SQL is?

(1) DD-MON-YY 

(2) DD-MM-YY 

(3) DD-MM-YYY 

(4) DD-MM-YYYY 

(5) None of these 

Q.10. For adding number of hours to a date, which of the following statement is used ? 

(1) Date + Number 

(2) Date + Number/24 

(3) Date+Number of Hours 

(4) Date +Hour/30 

(5) None of above 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (2) Snapshot of the data in the database at a given instant of time is called Database Instance.

Q.2. (4) Union is not Unary operation.

Q.3. (5) Project is not binary operation.

Q.4. (5) None of these

Q.5. (2) Drop table

Q.6. (2) Strong Entities

Q.7. (4) Cartesian

Q.8. (2) TRUNCATE statement in SQL removes all records from table, including all spaces allocated for the records are removed.

Q.9. (4) The default date format in SQL is DD-MM-YYYY.

Q.10. (2) Date + Number/24

Computer gk 20 may

Q.1. Which of the following is a type of DBMS Software?

(1) Data 

(2) My SQL 

(3) MS-office 

(4) utility 

(5) None of these 

Q.2. Which of the following is NOT a type of Microsoft Access database object?

(1) Queries 

(2) Workbooks 

(3) Forms 

(4) Tables 

(5) None of these 

Q.3. The complete picture of data stored in database is known as

(1) System flowchart 

(2) Schema 

(3) record 

(4) DBMS 

(5) None of these 

Q.4. A subset of characters within a data field is known as

(1) Record 

(2) File 

(3) Data string 

(4) Byte 

(5) None of these 

Q.15. Data items grouped together for storage purposes are called-

(1) Record 

(2) Title 

(3) List 

(4) string 

(5) None of these

Q.6. Which of the following terms does not describe a database structure used by a DBMS to link data from several files?

(1) Relational 

(2) Structural 

(3) Network 

(4) All of the above 

(5) None of these 

Q.7. The feature that database allows to access only certain records in database is:

(1) Forms 

(2) Reports 

(3) Queries 

(4) Tables 

(5) None of these 

Q.8. Set of permitted values of each attribute is called ______.

(1) Domain 

(2) Relation 

(3) Tuple 

(4) Schema 

(5) None of these 

Q.9. The primary key must be ____.

(1) Unique 

(2) Not null 

(3) Both 1 and 2 

(4) Either 1 or 2 

(5) None of these 

Q.10. Logical design of the database is called ______.

(1) Database Snapshot 

(2) Database Instance 

(3) Database Schema 

(4) All of the above 

(5) None of these 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (2) My SQL

Q.2. (2) Workbooks

Q.3. (2) Schema

Q.4. (3) Data string

Q.5. (1) Record

Q.6. (2) Structural

Q.7. (3) Queries

Q.8. (1) Domain

Q.9. (3) Primary key must satisfy unique and not null condition for sure.

Q.10. (3) Logical design of database is called Database Schema.

Computer gk 19 may

.1. Database utility exist in —————— menu?

(1) Format 

(2) tools 

(3) File 

(4) Edit 

(5) None of these 

Q.2. In which object sql is used?

(1) Query 

(2) Form 

(3) Report 

(4) Macro 

(5) None of these 

Q.3. What is the function of relationship?

(1) Relate multiple table 

(2) Relate multiple form 

(3) Relate table and form 

(4) Relate queries and forms 

(5) None of these 

Q.4. What is there in record?

(1) Collection of field 

(2) collection of Number 

(3) Collection of rows 

(4) All of above 

(5) None of these 

Q.5. Which operation is not permitted by query?

(1) delete 

(2) entry 

(3) Modify 

(4) create table 

(5) None of these 

Q.6. Which is not related to database?

(1) Table 

(2) Query 

(3) Form 

(4) Macro 

(5) None of these 

Q.7. The language used by application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to the-

(1) DML 

(2) DDL 

(3) query language 

(4) All of the above 

(5) None of these 

Q.8. COMMIT and ROLLBACK in DBMS are the example of -

(1) DDL 

(2) DML 

(3) TQL 

(4) DQL 

(5) None of these 

Q.9. In Data base , properties of any entity are represented by its -

(1) Setting 

(2) Tuples 

(3) Attributes 

(4) Degree 

(5) None of these 

Q.10. Type of a file is identified by -

(1) File 

(2) Attribute 

(3) Extension 

(4) Properties 

(5) None of these 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (2) Tools

Q.2. (1) Query

Q.3. (1) Relate Multiple Table

Q.4. (1) Collection of field

Q.5. (2) Entry

Q.6. (3) Form

Q.7. (1) DML

Q.8. (3) TQL (Transaction Query Language)

Q.9. (3) Attributes 

Computer gk 18 may

Q.1. What is place to the left of horizontal scroll bar? 

(1) Indicators 

(2) View buttons 

(3) Tab stop buttons 

(4) Split buttons 

(5) None of these 

Q.2. Which file starts MS Word? 

(1) Word.exe 

(2) Msword.exe 

(3) Word20.exe

(4) Winword.exe 

(5) None of these 

Q.3. How many ways you can save a document? 

(1) 3 

(2) 4 

(3) 5 

(4) 1 

(5) None of these 

Q.4. Background color or effects applied on a document is not visible in _______. 

(1) Reading View 

(2) Print Layout view 

(3) Web layout view 

(4) Print Preview 

(5) None of these 

Q.5. What is the maximum font size you can apply for any character in MS-Word? 

(1) 163 

(2) 1638 

(3) 16038 

(4) 72 

(5) 82 

Q.6. When inserting Page number in footer it appeared 1, how can you do that? 

(1) From Insert menu choose Page Number and specify necessary setting 

(2) From format menu choose bullets and Numbering and configure necessary setting 

(3) Click on Page Number Format tool and specify required setting 

(4) All of above 

(5) None of these 

Q.7. The______ is a short horizontal line indicating the conclusion of a document? 

(1) insertion point 

(2) end mark 

(3) status indecator 

(4) scroll box 

(5) ruler 

Q.8. What is the portion of a document in which you set certain page formating options? 

(1) page setup 

(2) section 

(3) page 

(4) document 

(5) print preview 

Q.9. Back ground color on a document is not visible in? 

(1) Web layout view 

(2) Print preview 

(3) Reading view 

(4) Print layout view 

(5) None of these 

Q.10. Which of the following is not available on the ruler of MS-Word screen? 

(1) Tag Stop Box 

(2) Left Indent 

(3) Right Indent 

(4) Center Indent 

(5) None of these 

ANSWERS 

Q.1.  (2) View buttons 

Q.2.  (4) Winword.exe 

Q.3.  (1) You can save a document by 3 ways. 

Q.4.  (4) Background color or effects applied on a document is not visible in Print Preview. 

Q.5.  (2) 1638 

Q.6.  (3) Click on Page Number Format tool and specify required setting. 

Q.7.  (2) end mark 

Q.8.  (2) section 

Q.9.  (2) Print preview 

Q.10.  (4) Center Indent

Comuter gk 17 may

1. What is the default number of lines to drop for drop cap?

(1) 2 

(2) 5 

(3) 10 

(4) 15 

(5) None of these 

Q.2. A bookmark is an item or location in document that you identify a name for future reference. Which of the following task is accomplished by using bookmarks?

(1) To add hyperlinks in a web page 

(2) To quickly jump to a specific location in the document 

(3) To mark the ending of a page of document 

(4) To add address in a web page 

(5) None of These 

Q.3. Why are headers and footers used in document?

(1) To mark large document more readable 

(2) To mark the starting and ending of a page 

(3) To enhance the overall appearance of the document 

(4) To allow page headers and footers to appear on document when it is printed 

(5) None of these 

Q.4. What is the maximum number of lines you can set for a drop cap?

(1) 10 

(2) 25 

(3) 20 

(4) 15 

(5) Undefine 

Q.5. How can you insert a sound file in your word document?

(1) From insert -> sound menu option 

(2) From insert -> file menu option 

(3) From insert -> object menu option 

(4) From insert -> Clip Art menu option 

(5) None of These 

Q.6. Macros are_______.

(1) Small programs created in MS-Word to automate repetitive tasks by using VBA 

(2) Small add-on programs that are installed afterwards if you need them 

(3) Programming language that you can use to customize MS-Word 

(4) Large tools in Word such as mail merge 

(5) None of these 

Q.7. A template stores _______.

(1) Graphics, text, styles, macros 

(2) Customized word command setting 

(3) Auto text entries 

(4) All of above 

(5) None of these 

Q.8. What do you mean by vertical separation between columns?

(1) Orientation 

(2) Gutter 

(3) Margin 

(4) Index 

(5) Vertical 

Q.9. Which of the following is not valid version of MS Office?

(1) Office 2003 

(2) Office Vista 

(3) Office 2007 

(4) Office 2013 

(5) Office XP 

Q.10. What feature helps you to inserts the contents of the Clipboard as text without any formatting in MS Word?

(1)Paste Special 

(2) Page setup 

(3) Styles 

(4) Format Painter 

(5) None of these 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (5) The default number of lines to drop is 3 for drop cap.

Q.2. (2) To quickly jump to a specific location in the document

Q.3. (4) To allow page headers and footers to appear on document when it is printed 

Q.4. (1) 10 is the maximum number of lines you can set for a drop cap.

Q.5. (3) From insert -> object menu option 

Q.6. (1) Small programs created in MS-Word to automate repetitive tasks by using VBA 

Q.7. (4) All of above 

Q.8. (3) Vertical separation between columns mean margin.

Q.9. (2) Office vista is not valid version of MS Office.

Q.10. (1) Paste Special feature helps you to inserts the contents of the Clipboard as text without any formatting in MS Word.

Comuter gk 16 may

Q.1. In Word, the mailing list is known as the _________.

(1) Data sheet 

(2) Source 

(3) Data source 

(4) Sheet 

(5) Data mail 

Q.2. What is the shortcut key to ‘Insert Hyperlink’ in a document?

(1) Ctrl + H 

(2) Ctrl + L 

(3) Ctrl + K 

(4) Alt+ K 

(5) Alt + H

Q.3. Thesaurus tool in MS Word is used for _______.

(1) Spelling suggestions 

(2) Grammar options 

(3) Synonyms and Antonyms words 

(4) Only for spelling and grammar 

(5) All of above 

Q.4. Which tab in Font dialog box contains options to apply font effects?

(1) Font tab 

(2) Character Spacing 

(3) Text Effects 

(4) Standard Toolbar 

(5) Character Effects 

Q.5. If you need to change the typeface of a document, which menu will you choose?

(1) Edit 

(2) View 

(3) Insert 

(4) Tools 

(5) Format 

Q.6. Where can you change the vertical alignment?

(1) Formatting toolbar 

(2) Paragraph dialog box 

(3) Page Setup dialog box 

(4) Standard toolbar 

(5) Header and Footer 

Q.7. The key F12 opens a ________.

(1) Save As dialog box 

(2) Open dialog box 

(3) Save dialog box 

(4) Close dialog box 

(5) Print dialog box 

Q.8. Ctrl + PageUp’ is used to ______.

(1) Moves the cursor one Page Up 

(2) Moves the cursor one Paragraph Up 

(3) Moves the cursor one Screen Up 

(4) Moves the cursor one Line Up 

(5) None of these 

Q.9. What happens when you click on Insert >> Picture >> Clip Art

(1) It inserts a clipart picture into document 

(2) It lets you choose clipart to insert into document 

(3) It opens Clip Art task pane 

(4) Both 1 and 2 

(5) None of above 

Q.10. Which of the following option appropriate for the extension of MS- Word files?

(1) .fil 

(2) .dot 

(3) .rtf 

(4) .wrd 

(5) None of these 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (3) In Word, the mailing list is known as the data source.

Q.2. (3) Ctrl + K is the shortcut key to ‘Insert Hyperlink’ in a document.

Q.3. (2) Grammar options 

Q.4. (1) Font tab 

Q.5. (5) Format 

Q.6. (3) Page Setup dialog box 

Q.7. (1) Save As dialog box 

Q.8. (1) Ctrl + PageUp’ is used to Moves the cursor one Page Up

Q.9. (3) It opens Clip Art task pane 

Q.10. (5) DOC is the extension of W

Computer gk 15 may

Q.1. To verify that the note text is positioned correctly on the page, switch to _____ view or display the document in print preview.

(1) Normal 

(2) Print layout 

(3) Page layout 

(4) Page edit 

(5) Paragraph 

Q.2. Pressing the _____ key instructs Word to replace an AutoText entry name with the stored AutoText entry.

(1) F1 

(2) F2 

(3) F3 

(4) F4 

(5) F5 

Q.3. Which feature is used for monitoring all document changes?

(1) Edit Document 

(2) Monitor Change 

(3) Track Change 

(4) Track all 

(5) Save 

Q.4. A letterhead should contain all of the following EXCEPT ____.

(1) Full street address 

(2) Logo 

(3) Complete legal name of the company, group, or individual 

(4) All 

(5) None of these

Q.5. Which of the following commands you should always use before submitting a document to others?

(1) Find command 

(2) Replace command 

(3) Spelling and Grammar 

(4) Thesaurus 

(5) Page number 

Q.6. Headers and footers can include text and graphics, as well as the _____.

(1) Current date, 

(2) Page number 

(3) Current time. 

(4) All of the above 

(5) None of these 

Q.7. The _____ is a short horizontal line indicating the conclusion of a document. 

(1) Insertion point 

(2) End mark 

(3) Status indicator 

(4) Scroll box 

(5) None of these 

Q.8. Which enables us to send the same letter to different persons?

(1) macros 

(2) template 

(3) mail merge 

(4) mail mix 

(5) None of these

Q.9. To cancel a job that is printing or one that is waiting to be printed _____.

(1) Click the Print button on the Standard toolbar 

(2) Click the printer icon on the taskbar 

(3) Double-click the Print button on the Standard toolbar 

(4) Double-click the printer icon on the taskbar 

(5) None of these 

Q.10. From the following alignment which can not be in the tabs stop position?

(1) Decimal Alignment 

(2) Center Alignment 

(3) Bar Alignment 

(4) Justify Alignment 

(5) None of these 

ANSWERS

Q.1. (2) To verify that the note text is positioned correctly on the page, switch to print layout view or display the document in print preview.

Q.2. (2) F2 

Q.3. (3) Track Change feature is used for monitoring all document changes.

Q.4. (5) None of these 

Q.5. (3) you should always use Spelling and Grammar commands before submitting a document to others.

Q.6. (4) Headers and footers can include text and graphics, as well as the current date, page number, and current time.

Q.7. (2) The end mark is a short horizontal line indicating the conclusion of a document.

Q.8. (3) Mail merge enables us to send the same letter to different persons.

Q.9. (2) Click the printer icon on the taskbar 

Q.10. (4) Justify Alignment